March 15, 2010 at March 15, 2010 · Filed under enart.nnxj.comedit
mu is a measure on the Borel sets of a separable, complete, metric
space X such that mu(X) = 1
Is it possible to choose a Borel set of a prescribed measure (e.g. For
any c in the unit interval there exists a Borel set E in X such that
mu(E) = c). If so, please prove.
The question is related to a problem from Halmos' Measure Theory text,
chapter 2 sec 9 #10Hello Mathtalk,
I appreciate your posting a comment on my question.
I'm not quite sure however, how your hint connects
to a counterexample.
In any case, I'm no longer convinced that this result is
necessary to the problem, so I'm cancelling the question.
Regards
halmosreader1-gaPerhaps I've missed a critical part of the problem, but I think there
is a trivial counterexample. Hint: Pick point x in X.
regards, mathtalk-ga#If you have any other info about this subject , Please add it free.# |
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